An X post and subsequent discussion:
It’s interesting that some Christians are adamant that sacraments are only symbols. There is no “real presence” of Christ in the water, bread, or wine. But interestingly, Paul leaves no doubt about the “real presence” of demons in paganism’s religious feasts in 1 Cor. 10. Christians are not to participate in these feasts precisely because it would mean communing with demons — and one cannot partake of both the table of demons (where worshipers commune with demons) and the table of the Lord (where his worshipers commune with him).
If demons are really present in these pagan rituals, and if idolaters really commune with them in these feasts, then how can we deny that Christ is present, really and truly, albeit mysteriously, in the sacramental meal he gave us? Can demons do something that Jesus cannot? Can demons really commune with their worshipers through a meal, while Jesus is absent and his followers get merely a symbol and reminder? Can demons have a “real presence” at their tables, but Jesus cannot have a “real presence” at his table? That seems very strange, to say the least.
The Lord’s Supper is really and truly a communion meal: by faith and by the mystical working of the Spirit, we really do commune with the body and blood of our Savior. Jesus really is present in the meal he gave us. He really does offer himself and all his benefits to us at the table. He really does give himself to us and renew his covenant with us in the bread and wine.
ADDENDUM: My own view of the real presence is Calvin’s virtualism – Christ uses the elements as instruments through which he gives himself to us. He is objectively present to us by the power of the Holy Spirit as we partake of the bread and wine. No epiclesis/consecration. But I wasn’t trying to articulate too precise a view in the post – just make the affirmation that if demons are present in pagan rites/feats, surely Jesus is present in his.
ADDENDUM: I think you’re looking at chapter 8, which has to do with meat bought in the marketplace (that may have been sacrificed to idols – but who cares?).
I talking about chapter 10 which is about pagan feasts/rites – participating in them is participating in the demonic, it’s communion with demons. Christians should “flee idolatry” which means not attending such feasts/rites.
ADDENDUM: All I’m affirming is the analogy Paul himself makes in 1 Cor. 10:19-20, that just as in pagan religious “sacraments,” there is an actual fellowship with demons, so in the Lord’s Supper there is an actual fellowship with Christ. Demons are present in their meals even as Christ is present in his. Paul’s objection to Christian participation in the pagan meals is predicated on the “real presence” of demons at their tables. I’m not saying demons have all the divine attributes of Christ, nor even that demons are present in precisely the same way (eg, the Holy Spirit makes Christ present to us as we partake of the bread and wine, which obviously cannot be true of demons). If demons were not present in their meals, eating them would not be a form of idolatry and it’d be no different than buying and eating meat in the marketplace that had been offered to idols (which Paul says Christians are free to do).
ADDENDUM: Verses 19-22 are key. Note that the reason the Lord’s jealousy is brought in is precisely because if his people attend these pagan feasts, they are having union and communion with demons. Jealousy is a term that especially applies in the context of marriage – a man is jealous for the love and loyalty of his bride. Participating in the pagan feasts is an act of spiritual adultery because those who eat from the demonic tables really do have some kind of intimacy with demons (just as Eve’s act of eating the food Satan offered her was an act of spiritual adultery per 2 Cor. 11:2-3).
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